BCCI Delivers Fitness Update On Bhuvneshwar Kumar Ahead Of New Zealand Tour

The Board of Control for Cricket in India, on Thursday, delivered a fitness update on fast-bowler Bhuvneshwar Kumar. The right-arm pacer has struggled with a spate of injuries in recent times. Bhuvneshwar Kumar returned to action during the T20I series against West Indies in December. Before playing in the T20I series, Bhuvneshwar Kumar was out of action for a considerable amount of time.

The T20I against West Indies was his first appearance for India since the third ODI against the same team on 14 August. Since then, he missed the Test series against West Indies as well as the home series against South Africa and Bangladesh. After returning from the Caribbeans, he followed a rehabilitation programme at the National Cricket Academy (NCA).

But he could only play one series before being diagnosed with a sports hernia and was subsequently ruled out of the ODI series against West Indies. He was replaced by Shardul Thakur in the ODI squad. And it looks like Bhuvneshwar Kumar would take a considerable amount of time before returning to action again.

The BCCI stated that the pacer underwent a successful sports hernia surgery on 11th January and would now go to the NCA for a rehabilitation programme.

“Fast bowler Bhuvneshwar Kumar travelled to London on 9th January and underwent a successful sports hernia surgery on 11th January. He was assisted by Team India physiotherapist Yogesh Parmar. Bhuvneshwar will now return to India and commence his rehabilitation at the National Cricket Academy (NCA) in Bengaluru,” stated BCCI in a statement.

Bhuvneshwar Kumar was not named in India’s T20I squad for the upcoming series against New Zealand. The pacer is also not likely to make it to the Test and ODI squad for the challenging tour that gets underway this month.

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